Why is factorial zero in all the discussions mentioned as 1? Why isn't this mentioned as indeterminate? Calling it one is the same as calling 0/0 equal to one.
Saburou Saitoh · 5:24 am 0!=1 is well-known, the result may be used in many and many cases over logic. Similarly, 0/0=0. We have many and many practical applications over logic, please look:
[32] viXra:2003.0071 submitted on 2020-03-03 15:31:11, (188 unique-IP downloads)
Ankur Tiwari's Great Discovery of the Division by Zero $1/0 = \tan (\pi/2) = 0$ on $ 2011$
Authors: Saburou Saitoh, Yoshinori Saitoh Category: Functions and Analysis
Division by Zero Calculus For Differentiable Functions in Multiply Dimensions
Authors: Saburou Saitoh Category: Functions and Analysis
[30] viXra:2001.0586 submitted on 2020-01-27 16:28:38, (56 unique-IP downloads)
Division by Zero Calculus, Derivatives and Laurent's Expansion
Authors: Saburou Saitoh Category: Functions and Analysis
[29] viXra:2001.0091 submitted on 2020-01-06 17:52:07, (64 unique-IP downloads)
Division by Zero Calculus for Differentiable Functions L'Hôpital's Theorem Versions
Authors: Saburou Saitoh Category: Functions and Analysis
Essential Problems on the Origins of Mathematics; Division by Zero Calculus and New World
Authors: Saburou Saitoh Category: Functions and Analysis